My question is really how much of this can the SEC really prove? The NYT has interviewed several, prominent law professors that say the SEC has chosen a particularly difficult suit against Goldman that may result in nothing being done at all. Was Goldman at fault? Probably, but who wasn't? The SEC basically has to prove that the context of the deal (the way the company marketed the product to potential investors) caused them to invest when they otherwise wouldn't. This is different from most SEC suits where they instead choose to criticize the CONTENT of the marketing strategies. How is the SEC going to prove that investors wouldn't have invested if the product was marketed differently? They probably aren't.
It seems to me that the SEC is really trying to crack-down on lax financial regulation (which it absolutely should) after a slew of ponzi schemes (damn you Madoff) and securities backed by basically no collateral arose in the wake of the most recent financial crisis. There is now increased chatter about a possible suit being brought up against AIG for its questionable practices, is this really the most productive way to deal with the financial crisis? We can all surely agree that Goldman, AIG, Lehman, and the whole lot of them messed up, but is the answer to bring suits against all of them? AND, are the small profits that they made here and there from deception even comparable to the subsequent losses incurred because of the crash in real estate prices?
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